I notice that this gets translated {by faith, to faith, for faith, in faith, in the faith, ...}. Is there some grammar point that allows the translator to add a preposition to the definite article or to drop the definite article altogether and replace it with a preposition or is this just decided by the translator based on context?
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James, Yep, lots of resources out there but too few conversation partners. Or, at least, not easy to find them. I will look at the Scripture references later. For now, I will answer your grammar question and I have a couple clarifying questions for you. As for the grammars: I don't know how familiar you are with the broad world of scholarship. As I've studied Greek over the last ten years, you come across the same standard grammars referenced again and again, so you get the feel of which ones are the standards to reference. Here are some titles/authors.
A few foundational grammars from previous generations that are somewhat exhaustive: A.T. Robertson's Grammar of the Greek New Testament in the Light of Historical Research Blass, DeBrunner & Funk, A Greek Grammar of the New Testament Dana & Mantey, A Manual Grammar of the Greek New Testament More recent and no less foundational, a bit easier to use, too: Stanley Porter, Idioms of the Greek New Testament Dan Wallace, Greek Grammar Beyond the Basics (this is my usual go-to) There are many more grammars on my shelf, but this is a start. You can get most in print if your savvy or on Logos and Accordance software. Clarifying questions 1. Which translations are you looking at? NIV, KJV, ESV? Others? 2. Help me focus my efforts: Would you mind restating your questions by specifying when you are talking about Greek prepositions in the GNT vs. English prepositions in a translation? I'm trying to nail down exactly what you're asking and I want to understand what is at stake for you so I can focus my effort. 3. (Not a question) Sometimes the preposition in Greek simply determines it's following words must use the dative. -Justin